Sure Success-Kar 2003 Qns

In the Karnataka PGCET 2003, out of 200 questions, answers for 61 questions can be found in the book “Sure Success in PG Medical Entrance”, 2nd edn, by RAMGOPAL, Jaypee Brothers Medical Publishers, New Delhi.

This effectively means that 61 questions (30%) have appeared from this book reinforcing the motto of Sure Success Series –  “Maximum Information in Minimum Time”.

Given below is the list of the 61 questions from the Karnataka PGCET 2003 with answers and reference page numbers from the book “Sure Success in PG Medical Entrance”, 2nd edn. (SSPG).

KARNATAKA PGCET 2003

1.  Skin lesions commonly seen in tuberous sclerosis include all of the following except

A.      Hypopigmented spots

B.      Adenoma sebaceum

C.      Shagreen patch

D.      Acanthosis nigricans

 Ans D. SSPG (241,246).

2.  Schizophrenia, a psychotic disorder is characterized by all the following positive symptoms except

A.      Hallucinations

B.      Delusions

C.      Conceptual disorganization

D.      Anhedonia

 Ans D. SSPG (256).

3.  Ideal drug employed in the preoperative preparation for surgical excision of pheochromocytoma is

A.      Atenolol

B.      Phenoxybenzamine

C.      Reserpine

D.      Clonidine

 Ans B. SSPG (138).

4.  Which of the following hormones is not a product of placental synthesis or production

A.      Human chorionic gonadotropin

B.      Human placental lactogen

C.      Prolactin

D.      Estriol

 Ans C. SSPG (404).

5.  Ewings sarcoma is believed to arise from

A.      Aberrant cartilage rests

B.      Endothelial cells in the bone marrow

C.      Mesothelial cells

D.      Periosteocytes

Ans B. SSPG (314).

6.  Mesothelioma has a strong association with which type of asbestos

A.      Crocidolite

B.      Amosite

C.      Anthrophyllite

D.      All of the above

 Ans A. SSPG (90).

7.  Dermatophytosis is fungal infection of the skin caused by

A.      Candida albicans

B.      Histiplasma capsulatum

C.      Trichophyton

D.      Tinea versicolor

 Ans C. SSPG (246).

8.  What is the most common benign mesenchymal tumour of the stomach

A.      Polypoid adenoma

B.      Leiomyoma

C.      Glomus tumour

D.      Lipoma

 Ans B. SSPG (282).

 9.  A 35-year-old woman was referred to the gynecology department with complaint of vaginal irritation, greenish yellow discharge and intense pruritus of recent origin. Physical examination was normal, but for diffuse vaginal erythema. Microscopic examination of the discharge revealed motile organisms with flagella. One of the following statements is false regarding this case

A.      It is an STD

B.      Oral metronidazole is the treatment of choice

C.      Vaginal pH is usually less than 2.5

D.      Even sexual partner needs treatment.

 Ans C. SSPG (413).

10.  Which of the following is an early sign of death

A.      Rigor mortis

B.      Adipocere formation

C.      Putrefaction

D.      Mummification

 Ans A. SSPG (177).

11.  All of the following are risk factors for the development of carcinoma colon except

A.      Crohn’s colitis

B.      Adenomatous polyp

C.      Ulcerative colitis

D.      Juvenile polyposis

 Ans D, SSPG (285).

12.  A 15-year-old girl has recurrent abdominal cramping and melena. Physical examination shows increased pigmentation on her lips and buccal mucosa. Her sister has a similar history and physical findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A.      Pseudopolyposis

B.      Familial polypsosis

C.      Villous adenoma

D.      Peutz Jeghers syndrome

 Ans D. SSPG (283).

13.  March fracture usually occurs in the

A.      1^st metatarsal

B.      2^nd metatarsal

C.      4^th metatarsal

D.      Head of the talus

 Ans B. SSPG (306).

14.  A distinctive feature when comparing ulcerative colitis with Crohns disease is

A.      Fistual formation

B.      Possible malignant transformation

C.      Colonic involvement

D.      Absence of granulomas

 Ans A. SSPG (93).

15.  S1Q3T3 pattern in ECG is classically seen in cases of

A.      Acute corpulmonale

B.      Acute inferior wall MI

C.      Hypokalemia

D.      Hypocaclcemia

 Ans A. SSPG (192).

16.  Hesitation marks are characteristic of

A.      Accident injury in young child

B.      Suicidal wounds

C.      Homicidal wounds inflicted by physically weak man

D.      Accidental injury

 Ans B. SSPG (179).

17.  Which of the following investigation is very pecific for spirochetal infection

A.      Wasermann reaction

B.      VDRL test

C.      Treponema immobilization test

D.      FTA ABS test

 Ans D. SSPG (250).

18.  In patients with HIV infection, pneumocystis carinii pneumonia prophylaxis is indicated with a CD4 cell count of

A.      600 per mL or below

B.      500 per mL or below

C.      400 per mL or below

D.      200 per mL or below

 Ans D, SSPG (427).

19.  The hilum of the right kidney contains all of the following structures except the

A.      Renal pelvis

B.      Tributaries of renal vein

C.      Sympathetic nerve fibres

D.      Part of right suprarenal gland

 Ans D, SSPG (25).

20.  In congenital dislocation of hip, clinical sign which shows that the affected thigh is at a higher level when the knees and hips are flexed to 90 degrees is known as

A.      Ortolanis sign

B.      Barlows sign

C.      Von Rosens sign

D.      Galeazzis sign

Ans D. SSPG (315).

21.  Differential cyanosis is a feature of

A.      Patent ductus arteriosus

B.      PDA with coarctation

C.      TOF

D.      VSD with Pulmonic shunt

 Ans B. SSPG (230).

22.  A 25-year-old female with fever, malise headaches and muscle pains. A chest xray shows bilateral infiltrates. Cold agglutinins are present in the blood. This patients illness is most likely due to infection with

A.      Influenza A virus

B.      Mycoplasma pneumonia

C.      Streptococcal pneumonia

D.      Pneumocystis pneumonia

 Ans B. SSPG (97).

23.  Osteochondritis known as sever’s disease involves

A.      Talus

B.      Lunate

C.      Tarsal navicular

D.      Calcaneus

 Ans D. SPG (312).

24.  Neurosurgical tretment of epilepsy usually involves removal of epileptic focus from which lobe

A.      Frontal lobe

B.      Temporal lobe

C.      Occipital lobe

D.      Pareital; lobe

 Ans B. SSPG (221).

25.  An elderly woman is admitted with weakness, weight loss, anemia and a palpable abdominal mass. She has a colon carcinoma. The most likely anatomic site is

A.      Rectum

B.      Sigmoid colon

C.      Left colon

D.      Transverse colon

 Ans ?B/D SSPG (285).

26.  Impulsive, excessively emotional and erratic behavior is characteristic of which of the following personality disorders

Paranoid

Narcissistic

OC

Schizoid

Ans B. SSPG (262).

27.  Cryoprecipitate is used to treat all of the following except

Hemophilia A

Christmas disease

Von Willebrand disease

DIC

 Ans SSPG Dermat, anesthesia, radiology, Psychiatry, Handbook (80)

28.  Psoriasis is characterized by all of the following except

A.      Erythematous plaques

B.      Silvery scales

C.      Poorly demarcated borders

D.      Kobner’s phenomenon

 Ans C. SSPG (244).

29.  Solitary pulmonary nodule in the lung with popcorn calcification is suggestive of

A.      Carcinoma

B.      Tuberculoma

C.      Hamartoma

D.      Metastasis

Ans C. SSPG (381).

30.  A 10 month old infant developed a sever watery diarrhea 2 days after a routine visit to the pediatrician. The likely diagnosis is

A.      Rotavirus infection

B.      ETEC infection

C.      Lactase deficiency

D.      Ulcerative colitis

 Ans A. SSPG (220).

31.  A small boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents is found to have a spiral fracture of the femur, with a variety of ecchymoses. Likely cause is

A.      Automobile hit and run accident

B.      Fall from a tree

C.      Child abuse

D.      Fall from a bicycle

Ans C. SSPG (180).

32.  All the following can result from carpal tunnel syndrome except

A.      Paralysis of opponens pollcis

B.      Paralysis of fleor pollicis brevis

C.      Paralysis of oblique head of adductor pollicis

D.      Paralysis of abductor pollicis brevis

 Ans C. SSPG (34).

33.  Bone within bone appearance is seen in

A.      Fibrous dysplasia

B.      Ankylosing spondylitis

C.      Osteogenesis imperfecta

D.      Osteopetrosis

 Ans D. SSPG (394).

34.  The first permanent molar erupts between

A.      8-10 years

B.      6-7 years

C.      11-12 years

D.      12-14 years

Ans B. SSPG (176).

35.  The cost in high energy phosphte bonds for the formation of 1 mole of glucose from pyruvate is

A.      8 moles of ATP

B.      6 moles of ATP

C.      4 moles of ATP

D.      2 moles of ATP

 Ans B. SSPG (70).

36.  A 40-year-old woman presents with hepatic failure, greenish brown deposits in descemt’s membrane of cornea and choreiform movements. The defect most likely responsible for the patients disease is

A.      Defect in synthesis of alpha 1 antitrypsin

B.      Defect of excretion of copper into bile

C.      An abnormality in glycogen synthesis

D.      Excessive absorption of iron from small bowel.

 Ans B. SSPG (327)

37.  The FRC is defined as the combination of

A.      Tidal volume and residual volume

B.      Tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume

C.      Inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume

D.      Residual volume and expiratory reserve volume

 Ans D. SSPG (49).

38.  In the Wallerian degeneration of a peripheral nerve

A.      The axons regenerate at 1 cm/day

B.      Occurs in distal portion of the broken axons leaving empty tubule

C.      Is a feature of neuropraxia

D.      All of the above

 Ans B. SSPG (310).

39.  An anemic partient with microcytic hypochromic anemia having low serum iron, low TIBC, increased red cell protoporphyrin is likely to have

A.      Iron deficiency anemia

B.      Anemia of chronic disease

C.      Sideroblastic anemia

D.      Beta thalassemia

 Ans B. SSPG (206).

40.  Essential features of nephritic syndrome are all except

A.      Increased urinary excretion

B.      Hypoalbuminenmia

C.      Peripheral edema

D.      Decreased serum cholesterol

 Ans D, SSPG (201).

41.  Immune complexes located within the basement membrane would most likely be found in a patient with

A.      Acute GN

B.      Membranous GN

C.      Type 1 MPGN

D.      Type 2 MPGN

 Ans D. SSPG (201).

42.  Which of the following is not a cestode

A.      D/latum

B.      T.saginata

C.      Schistsoma mansonia

D.      granulosus

 Ans C. SSPG (130).

43.  On radiograph chest, a double shadow behind the heart, signs of aspiration pneumonia and absence of air in the stomach is suggestive of

A.      Aneurysm of thoracic aorta

B.      Achalasia

C.      Carcinoma esophagus

D.      Peptic ulcer of stomach

 Ans B. SSPG (293).

44.  Which of the following acute viral hepatitis infections has the highest risk of progression to chronicity?

A.      Hepatitis C

B.      Hepatitis B

C.      Hepatitis A

D.      Hepatitis E

 Ans A. SSPG (217).

45.  Which one of the following inhalational anasthetic agent has rapid onset and rpid recovery actions and is most desirable for use in day case (out patient) surgical procedures?

A.      Ether

B.      Halothane

C.      Trichlroethylene

D.      Desflurne

 Ans D. SSPG (372).

46.  The investigation of choice for gallstone is

A.      Ultrasound abdomen

B.      ERCP

C.      Oral cholcystography

D.      Sulphur colloid scan

 Ans A. SSPG (290).

47.  Intensity of murmurs heard in all the below conditions decreases with valsalva manouver except

A.      TR

B.      PS

C.      TOF

D.      MVP

 Ans D. SSPG (190).

48.  Which of the following is not a killed vaccine

A.      Yellow fever

B.      Salk (polio)

C.      Hepatitis B

D.      Human diploid cell rabies vaccine

Ans A. SSPG (169).

49.  During a manic episode a patient typically exhibits

A.      Delusions of persecution

B.      Low self esteem

C.      Crying spells

D.      Grandiosity

 Ans D. SSPG (254).

50.  Which of the following is not indicative of ovulation

A.      Rise in BBT

B.      Progesterone level above 6.5 ng/ml

C.      Secretory endometrium

D.      Occurrence of menses

 Ans D. SSPG (410,55).

51.  The gas that is sused to measure diffusing capacity of lung is

A.      Carbon monoxide

B.      Carbon dioxide

C.      Nitrogen

D.      Sulphur dioxide plus oxygen

 Ans A. SSPG (49).

52.  Which one of the following pairs of lipid and related compounds exhibit opposite biologic activities?

A.      5-HPETE and LTD4

B.      Cholic acid and lithocholic acid

C.      TXA2 and PGI2

D.      Acetone and Betahydroxybutyrate

 Ans C. SSPG (77,78).

53.  The side effects of lithium used in psychiatry include all except

A.      Nausea, vomiting

B.      Tremors

C.      Hyperthyroidism

D.      Hypercalcemia

 Ans C. SSPG (272)

54.  Which one of the following disorders is classified under anxiety disorders according to DSMIII

OCD

Depression

Schizophrenia

Bipolar disorder

 Ans A. SSPG Dermat. Anes, psych, radio..handbook (27).

55.  Which of the following subtypes of HPV are not linked with Ca cervix

HPV 8

HPV 16

HPV 18

HPV 31

 Ans  A. SSPG Dermat. Anes, psych, radio..handbook (221).

56.  Mycobcterium leprae, the causative agent of leprosy

A.      Is an acid sensitive bacilli as seen on Zeihl neilsen stain

B.      Can be cultured on LJ media

C.      Elicits granulomatous reaction in tissues

D.      Never directly invades sensory nerves.

 Ans C. SSPG (117,247).

57.  Pulse oximetry gives and estimate of

A.      Systemic arterial oxygen saturation

B.      Systemic venous oxygen saturation

C.      Systemic arterial oxygen tension (partial pressure)

D.      Systemic venous oxygen tension (partial pressure)

 Ans A. SSPG (365).

58.  Which of the following is  anon catecholamine sympathomimetic drug

A.      Ephedrine

B.      Dopamine

C.      Isoproterenol

D.      Dobutamine

 Ans A. SSPG (136).

59.  Classification of pathogenic streptococci into group A,B,C,D and G is based on

A.      Color of colonies on blood agar

B.      Antigenicity of cell wall carbohydrate

C.      Presence or absence of capsule

D.      Presence or absence of M protein

 Ans B. SSPG (111).

60.  Which of the following is a specific antagonist to diazepam

A.      Midazolam

B.      Lorazepam

C.      Flumazenmil

D.      Aminoiphylline

 And C. SSPG (157).

61.  Which of the following drugs does not cross the blood brain barrier

A.      Glycopyrrolate

B.      Atropine

C.      Scopolamine

D.      Promethazine

 Ans A. SSPG (134).

Top